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Does divorce occur if a man says to his wife, "O widow" or "O abandoned woman"?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The mentioned wording might be an allusion to divorce. If the husband intended divorce by it, then it occurs; otherwise, it does not. The Maliki school of thought holds that any wording by which the husband intends divorce brings it about, even if it is far-fetched, such as "Give me water to drink." This is what Khalil ibn Ishaq stipulated, and what his commentator elucidated in Al-Taj wal-Iklil.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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