Is it permissible to transfer expiatory payments to other countries in general, or is it conditioned upon a specific need due to a difference of opinion among scholars?

Scholars have differed on the issue of transferring expiation (kaffara) from the country where it became obligatory to another country, and the majority of scholars permit it. The Hanafis explicitly allowed the transfer of zakat, and thus, by extension, the transfer of expiation is permissible a fortiori. As for the Shafi'is and Hanbalis, despite their disagreement on the permissibility of transferring zakat, they have gone on to permit the transfer of expiation because expiation differs from zakat in that "greed does not extend to it as it does to zakat." The dispute regarding the transfer of expiation is weaker than the dispute regarding the transfer of zakat.