Does divorce take place upon the wife if the husband, in surprise, says to her the word "taali'" while intending to ask her about the fatwa which states that divorce does not take place by it?

What has become common in some lands, pronouncing the word "taliq" with a hamza instead of a qaf, does not prevent the divorce from taking place thereby, nor does it render the utterance unclear concerning divorce. This is because the word "talaq (definition)" does not necessitate the removal of the marital bond by linguistic convention, but rather by the constructive (legal) custom. Divorce is established by all types of languages, as the core issue is the meaning. As for what the father uttered as an inquiry or a narration, no divorce takes place by it.