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The question

Does ẓihār occur if a husband says to his wife, "Ya bint" (O girl) instead of "Binti" (My daughter), with the intention of ẓihār? Does divorce occur by intention without explicitly using a word from the ambiguous (kināyah) divorce phrases? Do numbers have a relation to ambiguous phrases, such as "1" instead of "al-wāḥidah" (the one)?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A man's saying to his wife, "O daughter," if he intends it as an expression of affection and endearment, is not considered ẓihār. However, if he intends thereby to prohibit her to himself, then it is a kināyah (ambiguous expression) of ẓihār, and its ruling depends on his intention. Kināyah is that which can bear the meaning of ẓihār or something else, and its usage is not customarily predominant for ẓihār. So, if a man says to his wife, "You are to me like my mother," and he intends honor, there is no ẓihār. If he intends divorce, it is a divorce. And if he intends ẓihār, it is ẓihār.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
106746
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy