Does a divorce vow take effect after trading on the stock market, knowing that the questioner swore not to trade, or else his wife would be unlawful to him, then falsely swore by divorce that he did not trade?

The preponderant view regarding the prohibition of the wife is that it depends on the husband's intention: if he intended divorce, it is an enforceable revocable divorce; if he intended ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce by comparing one's wife to an unmarriageable relative), then it is ẓihār; and if he intended to prohibit her person, her private parts, or sexual intercourse with her, she does not become forbidden to him, and he owes an expiation for an oath. As for one who swears by divorce falsely, his divorce takes effect according to the majority of jurists, whereas Ibn Taymiyyah chose the view that divorce does not occur in this case. Caution should be exercised against solving marital problems with words of divorce and prohibition.