What is the ruling of Islamic law concerning a man who swore by triple divorce that he would not ask his wife for anything related to household matters and food, then he started asking indirectly?

The majority of scholars hold that a conditional divorce occurs upon the fulfillment of the condition, and this is the most preponderant opinion. An oath is based on the intention of the one swearing it. If the husband intended by his oath that he would not ask anything of you in any way, whether explicitly or implicitly, and then he asked you for something indirectly, then the breach of the oath has occurred, and the three divorces have taken place. You become unlawful to him until you marry another husband out of desire, and he consummates the marriage with you, and then divorces you. However, if he intended only an explicit request, then he does not breach the oath with anything else. And assuming he did not intend anything, his indirect request is considered a request, and the breach of the oath occurs with it.

Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah is of the view that he must offer an expiation for breaking an oath if he did not intend divorce. If he did intend divorce, then one divorce is binding. According to this opinion, he can take you back if this divorce does not complete the three divorces.

The husband should be advised to stop drinking alcohol because it is one of the major sins. If he insists on drinking it, you have the right to request a divorce if the marriage bond is still intact. If the husband uttered the conditional divorce while intoxicated and was aware of what he was saying, his divorce is effective. Similarly, according to most scholars, even if he was not aware of what he was saying, because he brought the intoxication upon himself.