Did the divorce take place because the questioner uttered it unintentionally, and does it take place if the questioner swore by divorce not to take from his wife's money, then took from it forgetfully?

The question is unclear. However, if it is a doubt about uttering a divorce, then nothing is required, and the marital bond is presumed to remain. But if you swore by Allah and then by conditional divorce that you would not take from her money, then you have broken your oath, and an expiation for an oath is due from you, and the divorce has occurred. The mentioned exception is not valid because it occurred an hour after the oath, and an exception is not valid unless it is connected to the oath, except in the case of an impediment. Neither the divorce nor the expiation for the oath is repeated by repeatedly taking from your wife's money, because the wording does not indicate repetition.

And if you swore to divorce with "I divorce my wife if I take from your money," then one divorce occurs. If you swore to divorce twice and intended to initiate the divorce with the first phrase only and made the second a confirmation, then one divorce occurs, even if the sessions are multiple. However, if you intended to initiate the divorce with both phrases simultaneously, then two divorces occur. If you did not intend confirmation or renewal: then one [divorce] if the session is unified, and two [divorces] if the sessions differ. In the event of one or two divorces occurring, you can reconcile with your wife before her waiting period is complete, provided that the total number of divorces is not three.