Is an irrevocably divorced woman religiously entitled to receive mut'ah [a compensatory gift] after it has been established that there was no complete marital relationship throughout the marriage, and that the husband engaged in abusive behaviors which led to the divorce?
First, if it is established that the wife is free from any defect preventing intercourse, the husband does not have the right to annul the marriage. If he divorces her after seclusion (khalwa) but before intercourse, he is obligated to pay the full Mahr (dowry). The wife is also entitled to maintenance during her iddah (waiting period). This divorce is considered revocable (raji) according to the Hanbalis, contrary to the majority of scholars who do not consider seclusion as consummation. The Hanbalis, however, view sound seclusion as equivalent to consummation.
Second, compensation (mutah) is obligatory for a woman divorced before consummation if no Mahr was specified for her. The majority of scholars recommend mutah for a woman divorced after consummation or seclusion. However, some jurists, including Ibn Taymiyyah and others, hold the opinion that mutah is obligatory for every divorced woman.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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