Back to search
The question

Is it permissible for a man to marry a woman who had loved him, but they did not marry due to family disagreements, and she then married someone else, and five years into her marriage, when problems arose between her and her husband, she sent for the man to seek his counsel regarding her marrying him after her divorce from her current husband?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A man may marry a woman who has been divorced and whose waiting period () has ended, unless he corrupted her against her husband. If he did corrupt her, then this is one of the gravest forbidden acts, and some scholars have gone as far as to say that the marriage of the woman to the one who corrupted her is invalid, as a punishment for him.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
194751
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy