Is a wife Haram for her husband if he told her that a divorce had occurred, and he had sworn an oath of divorce with the intention of delaying it, then he asked a شيخ (sheikh) who gave him a fatwa that the divorce had not occurred, and then he divorced her another time?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
An oath is based on the intention of the one swearing it. So, if the husband intended his wife to get up at any time, he does not break his oath by her delay in getting up. As for what he told his wife, that the Shaykh issued a that a divorce occurred, when in fact he did not issue such a fatwa, no divorce takes place by that statement, and he may take her back before her is complete.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/113008
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 113008
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy