Does divorce occur if the husband says: "I have already divorced myself" or "I divorce myself"?

Divorce does not occur with the husband's statement: "I have divorced myself" or "I am divorcing myself," because it is neither explicit in divorce nor an allusion to it, as it attributes divorce to an improper subject. For the man is the owner in marriage, and the woman is the owned, so the removal of ownership does not occur by attributing the removal to the owner.