What is the interpretation of the first, second, and third verses of Surat An-Nur: "The fornicator does not marry except a [female] fornicator or polytheist, and none marries a [female] fornicator except a fornicator or polytheist, and that has been forbidden to the believers"?

The exegetes differed regarding the implication of the Almighty’s saying: (The fornicator does not marry except a [female] fornicator or a polytheist; and as for the fornicator, none marries her except a fornicator or a polytheist. And that has been made unlawful for the believers.) An-Nur/3, concerning the prohibition of a chaste person marrying a fornicatress and vice versa, based on two opinions:

1. The first opinion (Prohibition): This was held by Imam Ahmad ibn Hanbal, and championed by Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibn al-Qayyim. It stipulates the prohibition of a chaste person marrying a fornicatress until she repents, and vice versa.

2. The second opinion (Permissibility with detestation): This was held by the majority of scholars, who believe that “nikah” (marry/marriage) in the verse refers to sexual intercourse (fornication), not the marriage contract. They hold that the verse came to condemn fornication, or that it is abrogated by the Almighty’s saying: (And marry the unmarried among you.)

Al-Shanqeeti pointed out the difficulty in ascertaining the true meaning of the verse, leaning towards the possibility that “nikah” could mean both sexual intercourse and marriage. He also noted that the mention of a polytheist (female) and a polytheist (male) aligns with interpreting “nikah” as sexual intercourse. However, the reasons for revelation (Asbab al-Nuzul) indicate that “nikah” means marriage.

In conclusion, most scholars consider marriage to a fornicatress or fornicator permissible, while those who prohibit it are fewer, citing the verse and other hadiths. The more evident view is that a Muslim should not marry except a chaste, virtuous woman.