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The question

Is the male entitled to a share of child support for the children equal to that of two females, or does that only apply to inheritance?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The obligatory spending by a father on his poor children is determined by their needs and sufficiency, as is customary, and it is not related to the inheritance division of "to the male, the equivalent of the share of two females." The spending on a daughter might be more than on a son, depending on the need. Scholars have unanimously agreed on the obligation of a father to provide for his young children who have no wealth. This spending should be sufficient to meet their needs and includes food, drink, clothing, and education expenses. As for gifts and endowments, scholars have differed on the permissibility of favoring one child over another.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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