Can Jesus's (peace be upon him) statement to his people, "and follow me," be considered a correct interpretation of the verse, and that the word "indeed he" in the Almighty's saying, "And indeed he is a sign for the Hour," refers to Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him), which would mean that the verse does not necessarily indicate Jesus's descent at the end of time?

The verse: {And indeed, he is a sign for the Hour} (Qur'an 43:61) is not narrated on the tongue of Jesus, but rather it is a statement from Allah Almighty. Scholars have differed regarding the pronoun's referent: Is it Jesus or the Qur'an?

Al-Mawardi and Ibn al-Jawzi's opinions on this matter: 1. The Qur'an is a sign for the Hour: because it contains mention of resurrection and recompense. 2. Jesus's revival of the dead is proof of the Hour. 3. The advent of Jesus is a sign for the Hour and an indication of its closeness.

The apparent meaning is that the pronoun refers to Jesus, and that his descent at the end of time is a sign of the Hour's closeness, as stated by Al-Shanqeeti.

As for the verse: {And follow me} (Qur'an 43:61), what is meant by following Allah Almighty is following His command, His law, and His messengers. The one who said this could be the Prophet, peace be upon him, by Allah's command, meaning: Say to them: Follow me. Some exegetes, like Ibn Ashour, mentioned that the pronoun might refer to Allah Almighty, meaning: Follow what has been sent to you from My words and My messenger. While Al-Qurtubi mentioned that the pronoun refers to the Prophet, peace be upon him, meaning: Follow me in monotheism and in what I convey to you from Allah.