Is fulfilling the parents' request for divorce considered an injustice to the husband and to oneself, especially since the reason for the dispute is the unavailability of the agreed-upon ملكiya (ownership) home, and the husband has sincerely repented of his previous behaviors?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the father stipulates to the husband that he must transfer ownership of a house to the daughter, then the husband must fulfill the condition unless the wife waives it. In this case, the father has no right to interfere. It is not permissible for the father to incite his daughter to divorce. If the wife does not waive the condition, she has the right to annul the marriage through the ruler. However, it is advised not to annul the marriage if the husband repents, as matters of ownership and leasing are among the fleeting enjoyments of this transient world.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 97223
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