How can the Almighty's saying, "The food of those who were given the Scripture is lawful for you," be reconciled with the Almighty's saying, "And do not eat of that upon which the name of Allah has not been mentioned"? And are the Christians of this era among the People of the Book? And if Umar (may Allah be pleased with him) stated that the food of the Christian Arabs should not be eaten, why did Allah permit the food of the People of the Book when Islam descended, even though they followed a distorted and altered scripture?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The sacrificial animal of the Christians of Arabia is permissible due to the generality of the verse, "And the food of those who were given the Scripture is lawful for you." This is because lineage does not affect this matter, rather religions do. This is the correct view according to Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibn Qudamah. As for the prohibiting the sacrificial animal of the Christians of Arabia, it is weak.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/145723
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 145723
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- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy