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The question

Does a triple divorce take effect if the husband requests his marital rights a second time, after he told his wife: "You are forbidden to me by triple divorce if I ask you for the right of the bed a second time," knowing that he intended to frighten her?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The ruling on swearing to forbid one's wife varies depending on the husband's intention. If he intended divorce, it is a divorce. If he intended ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce by comparing one's wife to an unmarriageable female relative), it is ẓihār. If he intended an oath or did not intend anything specific, it is an oath.

If the husband intended to intimidate and did not intend divorce or ẓihār, then his oath is treated as an oath by Allah Almighty, and he must offer an expiation for an oath (feeding ten poor persons, or clothing them, or fasting three days if he cannot find the means). The wife must respond to her husband for the marital bed unless there is a legitimate excuse. If she refuses without excuse, the angels curse her until morning.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
154237
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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