Are spouses considered divorced upon the written utterance of a divorce oath, and what is the ruling on the marital relationship thereafter, and what must the husband do to rectify the matter?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband did not intend divorce when writing the message for you to go to your grandfather's house, then no divorce occurs. Similarly, if he did intend it, but then permitted you to go based on his belief that his oath would not be binding, the preponderant opinion is that no divorce occurs either. The determinant factor is the intention. So, if the reason is removed, or there was forgetfulness or an interpretation (ta'wil), then no divorce occurs. Therefore, you are still under the marital bond with your husband.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/161523
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 161523
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy