Is the first marriage considered void or unlawful if the husband did not pray before the marriage but became committed to prayer afterward, knowing that the wife was consistent in her prayers? And does a divorce pronounced in anger, intended to intimidate and not to be a divorce, take effect, knowing that a fatwa was issued to feed ten poor people and return the wife?

The Fatwa's Summary:

The marriage of one who abandons prayer is not invalidated if he does not deny its obligation, because the preponderant opinion is that he does not disbelieve by abandoning prayer out of laziness. A man's statement to his wife, "You are divorced thrice," issues three divorces according to the majority of jurists. Thus, the woman is irrevocably separated from her husband and is not lawful for him until she marries another husband. This is the practice followed by us. As for the opinion that only one divorce occurs, it is the view of Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agreed with him. The opinion of whoever issued a fatwa that two divorces occur with an expiation for an oath is considered issuing a fatwa without knowledge. The questioner is advised to consult the Sharia court.