Is the husband's statement to his wife: "By God Almighty, if you sell even a gold ring of your gold for me, for the house, and for my children, it will be the last day between us," considered a conditional divorce? And does it occur if the wife sells gold, forgetting this oath? And is marital cohabitation sufficient for reconciliation if it was a divorce, knowing that it is the first divorce? And what should the spouses do to purify their lives?
Your oath to your wife, that if she sells any of her gold for your sake, or for the sake of your home and children, it would be the last day between you and her, is a veiled reference to divorce. If you intended divorce by this statement, then it occurs when your wife performs the act upon which it was suspended, according to the majority of scholars. The preponderant view for us is that of the majority. As for your wife performing the sworn-upon act out of forgetfulness, some scrutinizing scholars have preponderated that divorce does not occur in this case. However, the more cautious approach in this matter is to consider the divorce as having occurred. And as long as the divorce is less than three pronouncements, you may take her back as long as she is within her waiting period ('iddah).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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