Are the phrases "she is divorced" or "she shall be divorced" considered explicit pronouncements that effectuate divorce, even if the wife is absent?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The presence or absence of the wife does not affect the occurrence of divorce; rather, what is considered is what emanates from the husband. If the husband pronounces divorce explicitly, being fully competent, or alludes to it and intends it, the divorce takes effect. The phrase "she is divorced" brings about divorce immediately. As for an non-explicit phrase, such as a promise of divorce, it does not bring about divorce unless the husband intends for it to take effect through it; otherwise, he can retract it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/95896
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 95896
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy