Are the phrases "she is divorced" or "she shall be divorced" considered explicit pronouncements that effectuate divorce, even if the wife is absent?

The presence or absence of the wife does not affect the occurrence of divorce; rather, what is considered is what emanates from the husband. If the husband pronounces divorce explicitly, being fully competent, or alludes to it and intends it, the divorce takes effect. The phrase "she is divorced" brings about divorce immediately. As for an non-explicit phrase, such as a promise of divorce, it does not bring about divorce unless the husband intends for it to take effect through it; otherwise, he can retract it.