What is the ruling regarding someone who conditioned his wife's divorce, saying, "If you wash at this time again, you are irrevocably divorced," intending to prevent her from washing at noon, and then she did wash at that time due to a washing machine malfunction, knowing that he did not intend to divorce her at the time of making the condition?

Conditional divorce, according to the majority of scholars, occurs when the condition it is tied to is met. This is the fatwa we follow, contrary to the view of Ibn Taymiyyah. Therefore, if the wife used the washing machine at a time she was prohibited from doing so, the divorce has occurred. The fact that she was excused due to the washing machine breaking down does not prevent its occurrence, unless the husband intended in his oath not to prevent her if she was excused, or if she did so believing that her action would not lead to divorce. If it is concluded that divorce has occurred, does your statement "an irrevocable divorce" count as one or three divorces? This is a point of contention among scholars. It is best to present the matter to a Sharia court or trusted scholars.