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The question

Is it stipulated, for a divorce to take effect by linguistic utterance, that the letters be fully and accurately pronounced, especially given that the questioner feels as if he uttered the word "divorce" even though his tongue did not move?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Since the questioner is afflicted with waswas (obsessive whispering), his divorce does not take effect even if he utters it, because the certainty of the marital bond remaining is not affected by doubt regarding divorce. The cure for waswas is to turn away from it, frequently remember Allah, seek refuge in Him from Satan, perform Shari’ah (Islamic exorcism), and avoid asking questions and searching for fatwas (religious edicts) concerning divorce for those afflicted with waswas.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
163205
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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