What is a wife entitled to after the marriage contract, but before consummation and seclusion, in the event of an agreement to divorce, knowing that no mahr was specified, but rather a shabakah was given and a deferred mahr was stipulated? And is the shabakah considered a mahr, and does she take half of it, or does she take it in full?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a man divorces his wife before consummation and valid seclusion (al- al- sahihah), the woman is entitled to half of the named mahr (dowry). This includes everything that is considered part of the mahr by custom, such as the shabka (engagement gift), based on the Almighty's saying: "And if you divorce them before you have touched them, and you have already specified for them an obligation (mahr), then give half of what you specified." It is advised not to resort to divorce unless its benefit outweighs its harm.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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