Does divorce occur with the word "Observed" (referring to the iddah or waiting period) if the intention behind it was divorce? And what is the ruling on a wife who refuses to return to her husband and insists that the divorce has occurred, based on the advice of a consultant?

The answer to the question: "What is the ruling on a man telling his wife: 'Consider yourself divorced'?" is summarized as follows: A man's statement to his wife, "Consider yourself divorced" (اعتدي), is a metaphorical (kinayah) utterance. If he intended divorce by it, then it takes effect; otherwise, it does not. The husband is asked about his intention, and the wife's oath is accepted if he did not intend divorce. Some jurists hold that this utterance is considered an explicit divorce if the husband says it in a state of anger, without needing an intention. Others, however, believe that divorce does not occur by it unless the husband intends it, even in a state of anger, and the husband is not bound by an oath unless he says, "I intended divorce by it."