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The question

What is the ruling on offering the Istikhara prayer after the marriage contract? Is a wife entitled to seek divorce after performing Istikhara regarding a problem that occurred between the spouses? And does divorce take place in a state of extreme anger and hatred, knowing that some imams have ruled that the divorce did not occur?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

is performed for permissible matters and is not permissible for forbidden acts. As for a woman's request for divorce without a valid reason, a severe warning has been mentioned concerning it, unless she has suffered harm or developed a strong aversion to her husband. The husband is not obligated to fulfill the request for divorce if it does not harm his wife, and he is permitted to refuse until some of her rights are relinquished. Your divorce is effective if you uttered it while conscious and by choice; there is no consideration for anger that does not deprive one of awareness, nor for moral coercion. We advise presenting the matter to a court or to trustworthy scholars.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
132344
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy