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The question

Is it permissible for the wording of the Istikhara prayer to be a request for her fiancé to divorce her if that is good, or to ask to leave him if that is good, and when is it performed, and how is its result known?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is not clear whether what happened was a valid marriage contract (aqd shar'i) or merely an engagement (khitbah). If it was merely an engagement, then each party is free to annul it whenever they wish. Obedience to the mother in annulling the engagement is not obligatory unless there is a legitimate reason (masuwagh shar'i). In this case, there is no need for (guidance prayer) concerning an obligation. If there is no legitimate reason, then Istikhara is permissible. However, if a valid marriage contract was concluded, then you have become a wife, and it is not permissible for you to seek divorce except for a legitimate excuse. In that case, Istikhara becomes legislated, and its supplication should include naming the specific need. It can be performed at any time except during times when prayer is disliked. If seeking divorce is not permissible, then there is no Istikhara concerning it.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
136298
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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