What are the implications of a husband leaving his wife for approximately two years in another country without sexual intercourse, and intending to divorce her, knowing that the word "taliq" (divorce) has not yet been uttered? And what is the ruling on a disobedient wife?

Divorce does not occur by mere intention, nor does it happen simply by the husband's absence from his wife and his refraining from intercourse. However, it is the wife's right that her husband not be absent from her for more than six months without a valid excuse. If the marital relationship deteriorates and the husband desires a divorce, he should divorce her and not leave her in a state of suspension. It is better for him to strive for reconciliation, as divorce should only occur after all means of reconciliation have been exhausted.