Is stealing a commodity whose seller stipulated its sale at a specific price, considered a divorce oath, a sale, or is stealing unrelated to sale, and therefore no divorce occurs, and if it is sold for less than the stipulated price, is it considered a breach of oath?
What you mentioned does not result in any divorce, for oaths are not real; they are merely illusions and fantasies. Even if we assume there were oaths of divorce, there would be no breach.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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