Is a woman's marriage valid if it takes place with her father's consent and a new marriage contract, after she had previously married without his consent in a Sharia court in a Muslim country, in the context of her family's anger and their قطع التواصل معها (cutting off communication with her)? And what is the way to obtain parental satisfaction after marriage?
For a marriage to be valid, it is a condition that the woman's guardian (wali) contracts it. Otherwise, her marriage is invalid according to the majority of jurists, in contrast to the Hanafis. If a judge rules it valid, then it becomes valid. The first marriage was conducted by a Shariah judge who adopted the view of permissibility of marriage without a guardian, so it is not adultery (zina). The second marriage is considered a renewal and rectification of the first. Efforts should be made to satisfy the parents. If the father demands a Hajj pilgrimage because he believes the first marriage was adultery, then the Hajj should be promptly undertaken to satisfy him, while also informing him that the first marriage was not adultery, and that adultery – if it were to occur – does not require Hajj for repentance.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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