What is the ruling regarding a husband who used the word "Sarāḥ" (release/dismissal) or another similar euphemism with his wife without intending divorce, and he adopted the fatwa of his mufti that this does not constitute divorce, then he later learned about what is known as Talfeeq (talfiq - "patching together" or combining different juristic opinions)? Was his wife still under his marital bond, taking into account that he sought his mufti's opinion and adopted the majority view each time?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
What you have mentioned by way of detail regarding the expression [al-Sarrah] is correct.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/118565
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 118565
- Imported
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