What is the ruling on a man who returned from travel in Ramadan and ate on his way, then had intercourse with his wife immediately upon arriving home after he learned that she had become pure from menstruation?

Al-Nawawi said: "Refraining [from food, drink, etc.] out of reverence for the month is a unique characteristic of Ramadan (definition). Therefore, everyone who, by the end of the day, is in a state such that if they had been in that state at the beginning of the day, fasting would have been obligatory upon them, must refrain. This applies to someone who deliberately broke their fast, or someone who broke their fast on a day of doubt which later turned out to be Ramadan, or a traveler who became a resident, or a menstruating woman or woman in postnatal bleeding who became pure, or an insane person who recovered, or a sick person who recovered, or a child who reached puberty, or a disbeliever who embraced Islam." This is the madhhab (definition) of Abu Hanifa and one of the two narrations from Ahmad. However, according to Al-Shafi'i, refraining is not obligatory, and according to the Malikis, it is not even recommended. Based on this, the questioner should have refrained from intercourse out of reverence for the month and to avoid scholarly disagreement. Since he did so, there is no expiation (kaffarah (definition)) due from him. This is the sounder view among the Shafi'is, the madhhab of Malik, and one of the two narrations from Ahmad.