Does divorce permanently occur with the statement, "If your daughter leaves your apartment without my permission, she is divorced from me," or is it limited to a certain period or intended for intimidation? And does the statement, "I have given you permission to leave for necessities," negate this divorce?

If the suspension of a divorce is conditioned by the intention of a specific period, then the oath is not broken if the wife leaves without her husband's permission outside of this period. This is because intention is considered in oaths. So, whenever one intends by his oath something that it can bear, his oath becomes tied to what he intended, as evidenced by the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "And indeed, every person will have what he intended." Furthermore, restricting her exit without her husband's permission does not prevent her from leaving with his permission. It is advised to avoid marital problems and to be cautious about using divorce to solve them. Instead, wisdom should be exercised to maintain family cohesion.