Is a divorce valid that was pronounced twice: once with an intention preceding intercourse, and once as a slip of the tongue, bearing in mind that in the first instance, conjugal relations continued for nearly a week after the pronouncement of divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
A divorce issued by a responsible, willing husband is effective, even if he was angry, unless his anger deprived him of his intellect and he did not comprehend what he was saying. In such a case, his divorce is null and void. Therefore, if the husband uttered the divorce while overcome and deprived of his intellect, the divorce does not occur; otherwise, it is effective. If the husband has not divorced his wife before, he still has one revocable divorce, and he may take her back during her waiting period (iddah). Anger is the key to evil, and guarding against it encompasses all good.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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