Does a divorce issued by a husband in a state of extreme anger count, and is it considered one divorce or two if he repeated the question to his wife, "Are you divorced?" out of astonishment and for emphasis, and does the ruling of the bewildered apply to him, knowing that he had intercourse with his wife five days before the divorce while she was in a state of purity?

Divorce does not occur unless the husband intends to utter it, either with an explicit phrase or an allusive one. If divorce words slip from the tongue without the intention to utter them, such as someone intending to curse but their tongue inadvertently utters divorce, then it does not occur. Similarly, narrating a divorce is not considered a divorce. As for divorce occurring during a period of purity in which intercourse took place, it is an innovative (bid‘i) divorce and is effective according to the majority of scholars, even though Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agreed with him hold the view that it does not occur.