What is the ruling on saying "By divorce, I will not install the kitchen," and does divorce occur in the following cases: 1. If the kitchen was already installed, except for a part of it? 2. If I meant the remaining parts and my brother installed them? 3. If the carpenter installed the kitchen instead of me?
It is advisable to be cautious of anger, and swearing by divorce is impermissible because it is swearing by other than Allah, and is considered an oath of the wicked.
Conditional divorce takes effect as soon as the condition is met, according to the majority of scholars, unless the anger had reached the point of loss of consciousness.
Determining the intention of the swearer is important in whether the divorce takes effect or not. If the intention is absent, reference is made to the "context" (reason for the oath) or custom. So, if the wording clearly refers to the future, then he reneges by doing it himself. However, if he delegates the carpenter, then the prevailing custom determines whether the reneging occurs or not.
It is advisable to refer to the Sharia courts in matters of divorce to assess the circumstances and issue the correct ruling.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/120091