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The question

Is the financial amount given to a public employee after he facilitates a certain public service considered a bribe?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If an employee receives a salary for his work, it is not permissible for clients to give him (money), nor is it permissible for him to take it, because that is bribery. This is because the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, cursed the briber, the bribed, and the intermediary. However, if he does not receive a salary, or if the work is outside the scope of his duties and he exerts extra effort, then there is no harm in giving or taking. And if the employee refrains from performing his work or procrastinates until he is paid a bribe, there is no impediment to giving it to him. This falls under the category of "mudārāh" (fending off evil by appeasement) and is not considered bribery on the part of the giver, but it is bribery on the part of the receiver.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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