What is the ruling regarding a man saying to his wife while angry: "It is forbidden for me because of you not to sell the car"?

Scholars have differed regarding the prohibition of one's wife: whether it constitutes ẓihār, ṭalāq, or an oath (yamīn). The preponderant opinion is that it depends on the husband's intention. If he intended it as ẓihār, then it is a conditional ẓihār. If he intended it as ṭalāq, then it is a conditional ṭalāq. If he intended it as an oath, then it is an oath, and you are required to offer expiation (kaffārah) if you break it. As for your statement that this was said in a state of anger: if you were conscious of what you were saying and intended it, then its rulings are binding upon you. However, if anger caused you to lose your awareness, then nothing results from your statement.