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The question

Is a wife considered forbidden to her husband if he writes to her, "Are you forbidden to me?" without uttering it verbally, and he intended the question itself, not the pronouncement of prohibition?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A husband's statement to his wife, "Go to your mother's house," and the writing of divorce, are both allusive (kinayah) forms of divorce, by which divorce does not occur unless intended. If your husband did not intend divorce, then it does not occur.

It is incumbent upon the spouses to understand each other and resolve problems away from divorce, especially if they have children, to avoid negative impacts on them.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
138932
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy