Is it permissible for a man to divorce his wife whom he married solely for her religiosity, and then it becomes clear to him that she does not possess sufficient piety, nor does she desire to adhere to the commands of Sharia, nor does she care for the teachings of Islam, nor does she wish to obey her husband, despite the fact that she demonstrated the opposite before marriage?

Firstly, a man must investigate a woman's religious commitment before marriage. If, after marriage, it becomes apparent that her religiosity is less than he expected, yet she observes the obligatory duties and avoids prohibitions, then she is on a path of goodness. This is based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "If a woman prays her five [daily prayers], fasts her month [of Ramadan], guards her chastity, and obeys her husband, she will be told, 'Enter Paradise from whichever of its gates you wish.'" Collaboration between spouses can help increase acts of obedience. However, if the deficiency in obedience reaches the point of abandoning obligatory duties or committing prohibited acts, this is a dangerous spiritual laxity that could lead to ruin.

Secondly, if the wife is negligent in prayer and interferes in her husband's religious matters, such as objecting to his beard, this is evidence of dangerous spiritual laxity. The husband must not be lenient with her regarding this, especially concerning the abandonment of Fajr prayer. The husband is advised to be patient with her and try to discipline and teach her. If she becomes upright, adheres to prayer, and obeys her husband, he should be patient with her. Otherwise, it is better to separate from her before having children to avoid complicating the problem.