Has the divorce occurred in the two aforementioned cases, and what is the number of divorces that have occurred?

If a man says to his wife, "You are ta'il" (أنت طال) without the letter 'qaf' (ق), there is a difference of opinion among scholars regarding it. However, if he pronounces the 'qaf' intentionally, then divorce occurs. If it was a slip of the tongue, it does not occur.

As for conditioning divorce on her taking her belongings and going to her family: if you intended to temporarily prevent her at the time of anger, then divorce does not occur if she goes in a situation other than this.

As for conditioning divorce on her informing her mother about the dispute: if you intended direct or specific notification, then it does not occur except through that. But if you intended notification absolutely, then as soon as she informs, divorce occurs. Anger does not prevent its occurrence unless it reaches the point of loss of awareness.

If the three divorces are not complete, the wife can be taken back before the expiry of her 'iddah (waiting period).

It is recommended to present the matter to trustworthy scholars for detailed clarification and to avoid causes of anger and using divorce pronouncements in oaths or threats.