Are the following cases considered divorce, based on public opinion and your opinion? 1. A wife swore an oath of divorce that she would not increase a student's grades except through his own effort. Then she increased his grade in a later exam after a previous addition, then she retracted after remembering the student intended in the oath. Has a divorce occurred? 2. A wife swore an oath of divorce that she would not give food and drink to her brother's workers. Then she would give food to her nephew to deliver to them, and she would call them to eat. Does a divorce occur if she gives food to a painter who does not work under the authority of the foreman intended in the oath, especially with doubt about the intention of the oath, whether it was for all workers or workers of a specific foreman?

If you did not increase the student's grades beyond what he deserved, then you were truthful in your oath and your divorce did not occur. As for your oath to the workers that you would not give them food, you have broken it and divorce has occurred by their eating of the food, whether you handed it to them or they took it themselves, because stratagem is of no avail in an oath. An exception to this is if you only intended to refrain from handing them the food yourself; in that case, you would not break your oath by their eating it without your handing it to them. The decisive factor in these matters is the intention. If you did not have a specific intention, then the decisive factor is the reason for the oath and what prompted you to swear. This matter should be presented to trustworthy scholars. We also point out that the lawful oath is by Allah Almighty, and swearing by divorce is an oath of the dissolute.