Does the husband's statement to his wife: "The announcer's tongue is divorced concerning the reputation of so-and-so" affect the marriage contract?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the husband, by describing the announcer as "ṭāliqa" (divorced/free), meant the freedom of the tongue (eloquence), then no divorce occurs. This is because divorce only occurs with the intention of uttering its explicit لفظ (wording) or an implicit كناية (allusion) accompanied by the intention. The husband's statement "ṭāliqa" here was intended to describe the announcer's tongue and not to divorce his wife. One should avoid obsessive doubts (waswasah).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/101873
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 101873
- Imported
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- Source text, unreviewed
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