Does a divorce take effect if a man tells his wife, "By divorce, you shall get up and make tea," and she refuses, then apologizes to him and does what he commanded her a few minutes later, and does he owe expiation?

If "divorce" was intended merely as an oath and not to effect a divorce, then no divorce takes place, and no expiation is required, because it is a void oath. However, if he intended to make the divorce conditional and his wife did not obey him immediately, then he has broken his oath and divorce has occurred according to the majority of scholars. Some scholars, like Ibn Taymiyyah, are of the view that divorce does not occur if the intention was to threaten or encourage, and an expiation for an oath is required.