Is what "Asghar" did—registering two-thirds of the land in the name of his wife's niece, and the remaining half in his name and his wife's name, and the other half in the names of his nephews, while he benefits from the harvest of what he registered in the names of his nephews—correct and in accordance with the Qur’an and Sunnah? What is the ruling of Islamic Sharia on his action? And is the idea of "Akbar's" sons—not agreeing to transfer the land to Asghar and sufficing with giving him its harvest—in accordance with the Qur’an and Sunnah? And is it permissible for a person to transfer his property to non-heirs during his lifetime or to deprive them of their legitimate share?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A person may dispose of their wealth as they wish, so long as they are of sound mind, sane, and mature. Thus, they may donate part or all of it to an heir or a non-heir, but on condition that they do not intend to disinherit the heirs. If they do intend to disinherit the heirs, then their action is forbidden and is called at-tawleej (transferring property to one heir to deprive others). Moreover, no one should dispose of another's property without their permission.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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