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The question

Is a divorce considered to have occurred if I swore not to dress my children in certain clothes in Egypt, then traveled to Saudi Arabia and took the clothes with me, believing that the oath was specific to my home in Egypt?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband swears an oath of divorce and then breaks his oath, his divorce takes effect. This is the view of the majority of scholars and the established fatwa. If the wife dresses the children in clothes brought by her brothers, the divorce takes effect, unless the husband intended by his oath to restrict the prohibition to their being in their country. In that case, the divorce does not take effect if they wear those clothes outside their country, because the intention of the one who swears an oath specifies the general. However, if the wife did that believing that the husband would not break his oath in this situation, the majority view is that the divorce takes effect, while some meticulous scholars do not consider it to have taken effect.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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