What is the ruling concerning a divorce issued by someone who uttered angry phrases, and does not remember whether he explicitly pronounced the word "taliq" (divorcing) or not, keeping in mind that he was not religiously committed at that time?

If a divorce is pronounced using an explicit term, it takes effect immediately upon utterance, without requiring the wife's knowledge, because whoever's consent is not stipulated, their knowledge is not stipulated. However, if a divorce is pronounced using an implicit term, it does not take effect except with the intention, as mentioned by the author of "Fath al-Qadeer" and al-Mardawi. It is advisable to refer such cases to the Sharia (definition) court for resolution.