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The question

Is a fatwa issued for divorce by the wife's paternal uncle in a non-Islamic country, without recourse to a Sharia court or hearing the husband, considered valid and does it render the wife divorced?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Disputed matters between spouses should be referred to the شرعي () court, or its equivalent. Issuing a from a distance is not beneficial in such cases. A fatwa is a clarification of a شرعي (Sharia) ruling and is not binding; enforcement is the prerogative of the judiciary. Divorce does not occur except by the husband's pronouncement of divorce or by a judge's ruling. When there is a dispute, the husband's statement is to be taken as true. If the wife is harmed, she has the right to request a divorce from the judge. However, it is not permissible for her to request a divorce without a valid excuse, or to leave her husband's house without his permission unless there is a necessity. Obedience to the husband takes precedence over obedience to her parents.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
193130
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy