Are the three divorces that occurred counted, and what is the ruling if the third divorce occurred while the wife was on the verge of childbirth?
The majority of scholars hold that a divorce pronounced during a period of purity (Tuhr) in which intercourse has occurred is an effective divorce, and this is the fatwa (ruling) acted upon. The divorce of a pregnant woman is effective without dispute among jurists. Therefore, you have divorced your wife three times, and she has become irrevocably separated from you (Baynunah Kubra). You cannot take her back unless she marries another man out of genuine desire (Zawaj Raghabah), and he consummates the marriage with her, and then divorates her or dies, and her 'iddah (waiting period) from him expires.
According to Ibn Taymiyyah's view that an innovative divorce (Talaq Bid'i) does not take effect, the first divorce that occurred during a period of purity in which intercourse took place, before you knew she was pregnant, is not effective. If you seek a fatwa from someone you trust regarding their knowledge and piety among the scholars and they rule according to this opinion, there is no blame upon you for acting upon it if you are comfortable with its validity.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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