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Is what was mentioned in a previous fatwa regarding the ruling on one who consumes usury, that "God curses" signifies prohibition, and that the occurrence of a curse upon something renders it prohibited, a universally accepted matter or not? And can giving usury be considered a grave sin, taking into account the inclusiveness of the noble Hadith to include whoever wrote the usurious contract or witnessed it?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

It is necessary to gather evidence and statements to distinguish the general from the specific, the comprehensive from the detailed, and the abrogating from the abrogated; this requires study and practice.

Cursing indicates that the perpetrator has committed a major sin that necessitates expulsion and banishment from God.

What was reported from Ahmad regarding the dislike of lamenting and wailing is limited to truthfully enumerating the deceased's virtues, and this does not affect the persistence of the original ruling on wailing and lamenting (prohibition), and its being a major sin is derived from the text of the hadith because every major sin is forbidden.

Engaging in usury and its perpetrator being cursed is mentioned in the hadith, and the cursing indicates that the act is a major sin.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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